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needinfo
12-01-2008, 03:22 PM
I sold my business under duress. In the settlement, I was barred from suing other party and lawyer for past or prior actions. Would a settlement such as this bar me from suing for criminal or illegal actions? Such as mail fraud, bank fraud, possible embezzlement, misrepresentation?

LawGuru
12-01-2008, 07:35 PM
I guess so. After all, what has been waived were past causes of actions. But if you think you really have a meritorious case that you can't possibly have discovered before the settlement, then by all means... sue!

needinfo
12-02-2008, 10:46 AM
Thank you for your reply. I am sorry, I misstated the question, I do not want to sue at this time. Does the settlement bar me from making a criminal complaint for past or prior actions preceding the settlement (mail fraud, bank fraud, possible embezzlement and legal misrepresentation). Would the act of making a complaint to state or federal authorities, asking for investigation, be of it's self, a breech of contract?