ritag3
04-06-2009, 05:46 PM
I am preparing to divorce my husband of 4 yrs on the basis of infidelity. My husband got a prostitute pregnant in a latin american country and intends to purchase a home in that country for her. Am I entitled to consider that home purchase as part of our marital assets?
We also have a home that I pay 1/3 of the mortgage. The mortgage is listed in his name only. Both of our names are on the title and deed. What am I legally entitled to claim?
We also have a home that I pay 1/3 of the mortgage. The mortgage is listed in his name only. Both of our names are on the title and deed. What am I legally entitled to claim?