ktmes68
06-26-2007, 05:50 PM
When my husband and I purchased our home, the mortgage company wanted to use his credit only as mine was not in good shape due to a recent illness and loss of work. They had me sign a piece of paper stating that I gave up all rights to our home. Is that legal in Texas, since it is a community property state? During a recent arguement my husband pointed out to me that everything was his because I signed that paper. Is this true? Where do I stand legally, should he decide to end our marriage?